It Is My Opinion...

It Is My Opinion...

It is my opinion that good contextual analysis and sound Biblical exegesis leave no other option but that ALL prophecy was fulfilled at the destruction of Jerusalem and her temple, the time that Jesus said was "the days of vengeance, that ALL things which are written may be fulfilled." (Luke 21:22). That MUST include Daniels prophecy, or Christ was not telling the truth. Jesus also told His apostles that some of them would still be alive to see Him coming "in His Kingdom" and "in the Glory of His Father and with the holy angels." (Matthew 16:27-28)

John said that MANY anti-Christ's "had already come" in his day(1 John 2:18), and THAT was the proof that THEY(the apostles' generation), KNEW that THEY were living not only at the "end of the age," but worse, at the "last HOUR" of that age that was coming to an end!

Furthermore, 1 John 4:3b tells us that everyone who denies that Jesus is God's Messiah - EVERYONE - is "THE" anti-Christ "which you have heard was coming, and is NOW in the world," in the first century.

I call your attention to the fact that Revelation NEVER once mentions "the anti-Christ;" or even just "anti-Christ," but Rev 13:11-17 describes multiple "beasts" and then at verse 18, we are told of a single Beast, and that the number of that BEAST is 666(or 616 if you prefer).

Daniel 7 tells us that the "beasts" are world governmental powers(vs 18). and at vs 23 the angel informs Daniel that "‘The fourth beast shall be A fourth KINGDOM on earth," and that "the saints shall be given into his hand for a time and times and half a time." We KNOW historically that Rome was that fourth "beast.," and Rev 13:18 tells us the number of that fourth Kingdom "beast" - not an individual man - was 666.

To say that any of the above is predicted to be yet in the future of us who are living today is completely foreign to the teachings of the Bible and must be imposed on the text. It cannot be exposited from it.

To apply the hermeneutical principle of a "double reference/fulfillment" renders everything we just saw as mystical, "hokey-pokey" meaninglessness.

Better yet, in the words of Terry S Milton: "A fundamental principle in grammatico-historical exposition is that the words and sentences can have but ONE significance in one and the same connection. The moment we neglect this principle we drift out upon a sea of uncertainty and conjecture." (caps are mine)

If anyone has a better, more reasonable, logical, and Scripturally sound argument to say that it was NOT fulfilled in the first century, but indeed applies to us today and those in our future, then by all means, Please Share with us so I can correct my thinking!

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